https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/28/1746 Welcome to the first annual "who can explain it?" contest No purchase necessary It's been said that laws are for everyone and should be written in a way anyone could understand Yup I said that lol... or did I? How can anyone take something no one understands then use that to create a liability on someone, or demand that they must follow it Seems pretty unfair but life isn't fair (easy mode) So the link is on top, someone please explain part (1) where even I can understand it Your challenge if you choose to accept it and good luck players
*Edit* Section 1 & 2 just sound like statutory decorations. Which is signing your name to a legal document stating all the facts above are true and correct to your knowledge
Are you sure? It says "(1) If executed without the United States: “I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury under the laws of the United States of America that the foregoing is true and correct. Executed on (date). (Signature)”. If without UNITED STATES say it's under the laws of the United States of America? What does it say, omg, which is it United States or United States of America, I'm so confused which is what the heck guys stop screwing around, what is going on with this law Please explain this.... So far everyone has failed
Its a stat dec. #1 is for stat dec's signed beyond the border of the U.S, but still adhearing to United Staes law, therefore mentioning the U.S. #2 is stat dec signed within the U.S's borders, probably by a JP, therefore doesn't have to state 'United States' on it.
So you're saying there is a deference between United States and the United States of America? And that the difference is that United States is within United States and the United States of America is not? Dude I'm still all confused, how many countries are called USA? Do you have a map? Maybe that would help by highlighting both of these countries
Lol no no. The way it seems to read is that its a legal document for the U.S, but #1 is for international use and declaring to adhere to the statutory laws of decorationin the U.S. #2 is for national use. Hence why the only real difference is the wording "Outside" & "Inside" the boundaries of the U.S.
You swear to tell the the truth, the whole truth and nothing but the truth Signed x_x; Suptis2 Thanks for agreeing to and entering the contract x_x The legality of the contract will not be discussed in this thread as to avoid derailing the You are however, limited to 3 posts per week until 17:41, 16 May 2017. Contract is nullified under chapter 924, section 52-553 and the contents it contains
Come on guys You are legal experts and I'm wearing a tin foil hat Please explain the difference between United States and United States of America This is easy, you guys should have figured it out in seconds
Is your only real question the part where "United States" is or is not the same as "the United States of America"??? They are btw... I doubt that distinction would hold up in court as being separate countries or anything like that but I suppose there are idiots out there who could be confused by the wording...
If they are both the same why would be worded that way, seems like a waste of words just to confuse everyone Title 28 usc 3002 15 (a) does define United States I've yet to find any definition for United States of America outside the constitution United States used to have 6 definitions in the legal dictionaries they've since been removed from new editions I know the answer because I don't ask questions that I don't know the answer for How else would I know if your right
Technically there is no difference? Both refer to the United States of America. Unless you're wanting to divide and define USA and America. Because then there's a difference.
Yes it's a waste of words, it's legal jargon boilerplate. Question answered yet? ? Edits for a word. I have fat thumbs...
Nah no one has explained it accurately yet, think about it, what was before the constitution, what did the constitution do Not talking about 1 stat 1 Not talking about anything before 1 stat 10 The states got together at the con con and did something that was changed in the act of 1871
Okay. So then you're looking for something along the lines of; One is a corporation, the other is a geographical land mass. That it?
LOL yeah pretty much, the constitution created a district 100 square miles and separated it from the state republics It's foreign to the States in the same way the states are foreign to eachother, each having its own constitution, however it is not a state and does not guarantee a republic form of government, it did not become a municipal corporation until the act of 1871 The United States of America is referencing the states in the union which are all must guarantee to be republic form of government The letter I have from a state senator shows exactly what one must do to reach United States of America under the organic constitution, by default everyone is under the plenary powers of Congress until that one thing is done After that's done we will be free, funny thing is congress wears a hat for each of these places and it's hard to tell which statutes apply to which place If you look at the boundary stones around DC, you'll see one side says United States the other side says "Maryland" it does not say state of Maryland just Maryland, in fact any official government map does not show any "state of" anywhere on it State of Maryland, etc, does not exist on any map, state of Maryland only exists in their government buildings within the county that holds the state Capitol, very very small jurisdiction, and they also wear 2 hats If you want to conquer a nation in complete secret this is how it's done,
You have violated your contract. All agreements will be nullified starting 23:21 Thanks! Im 2T richer
.... Sooo, did I win? Australia is also a registered corporation. 1971 saw The Commomwealth of Australia become 'The Australian Government' Tho our federal reserve bank is owned by Rio Tinto at least. Although Rio Tinto is part owned by Saudis, the Queen still ownes the majority of it. (Via subsidiary means) Not like the United States whos reserve bank was sold off by Woodrow Wilson in 1920's to Israel. Now the Rothchilds pretty much own the U.S. and using it to overtake the reserve banks in nearly all of the middle east, while the tax payers of the U.S. are stuck forking out $100 for a printed $100 note, when all it costs Jeffy boy is around 0.28 cents. And they wonder why the U.S. debt just keeps rising and rising